Hi all,
I have a scenario that I need some feedback on .
A couple own a block of land in Sydney, in joint names, its unemcumbered.
They have an LOC in place. The LOC is in joint names.
The funds in the LOC are drawn down and used towards the purchase of a property in Brisbane which is put in the wife's name.
The property in Brisbane is rented out.
The question is, is the husband entitled to claim half the rent and half the expenses incurred in running the rental property, and thus entitled to negative gear a share, or his share, of the transaction ?
I understand its the 'purpose' of the funds that determine the outcome, but with the property 100% in the name of the wife, does it make a difference to the outcome ?
This is a real example, but it does not apply to me, so any opinions and feedback from some of the experts here would be appreciated.
Thanks in advance..
kp
I have a scenario that I need some feedback on .
A couple own a block of land in Sydney, in joint names, its unemcumbered.
They have an LOC in place. The LOC is in joint names.
The funds in the LOC are drawn down and used towards the purchase of a property in Brisbane which is put in the wife's name.
The property in Brisbane is rented out.
The question is, is the husband entitled to claim half the rent and half the expenses incurred in running the rental property, and thus entitled to negative gear a share, or his share, of the transaction ?
I understand its the 'purpose' of the funds that determine the outcome, but with the property 100% in the name of the wife, does it make a difference to the outcome ?
This is a real example, but it does not apply to me, so any opinions and feedback from some of the experts here would be appreciated.
Thanks in advance..
kp