CGT on shares
Hi All,
I’m not certain how capital gains tax is applied, please help.
If a sale of some shares makes a profit, one needs to pay CGT on this profit. OK
Is the taxable amount added to your other taxable income? For example, if one made $10k profit on a trade and had an income of $50k, does your profit get added to that and at the end of the year you are taxed as if you’d earned $60k? Is this correct?
This is probably how it works with a simple sale and if you have a simple income stream. I’ve only ever had simple years where at most I had one transaction (share or property sale) that attracted CGT, and this seems to be how it was taxed.
Now, I’ve heard also that CGT is taxed at your highest marginal tax rate. This is different and may be a bonus for my wife and, let me explain…
We recently bought some shares in my wife’s name and they have done rather well. If we make, say, $10k profit on sale of these shares, at what rate does the tax get applied?
My wife currently stays home with the little noisy members of the family and earns $0 (apart from family tax benefit payments). So, how does CGT get applied in this situation?
Yes – I am aware of the 50% reduction in CGT if an asset is held for more than 1 year.
So is it 1, 2, or 3?
Our actual profit is much more than $10k at this stage so the answer makes a big difference to whether we would sell now (if we were to sell), or make sure we held for 1 year….
Cheers
Hi All,
I’m not certain how capital gains tax is applied, please help.
If a sale of some shares makes a profit, one needs to pay CGT on this profit. OK
Is the taxable amount added to your other taxable income? For example, if one made $10k profit on a trade and had an income of $50k, does your profit get added to that and at the end of the year you are taxed as if you’d earned $60k? Is this correct?
This is probably how it works with a simple sale and if you have a simple income stream. I’ve only ever had simple years where at most I had one transaction (share or property sale) that attracted CGT, and this seems to be how it was taxed.
Now, I’ve heard also that CGT is taxed at your highest marginal tax rate. This is different and may be a bonus for my wife and, let me explain…
We recently bought some shares in my wife’s name and they have done rather well. If we make, say, $10k profit on sale of these shares, at what rate does the tax get applied?
My wife currently stays home with the little noisy members of the family and earns $0 (apart from family tax benefit payments). So, how does CGT get applied in this situation?
- Does it get taxed as if she had earned $10k (i.e. she pays approx $600 tax), or
- Does it get taxed at her highest marginal rate (i.e. 0%)? Or
- Does her income become $10k for the year, so she gets taxed at the highest marginal tax rate for that amount (i.e. 15%)?
Yes – I am aware of the 50% reduction in CGT if an asset is held for more than 1 year.
So is it 1, 2, or 3?
Our actual profit is much more than $10k at this stage so the answer makes a big difference to whether we would sell now (if we were to sell), or make sure we held for 1 year….
Cheers