I have a land tax question for my friend. He had property A as PPOR until 2013. In 2011, he bought a block of land to build his future PPOR (Property B). In 2013, he moved to B and converted A into IP.
He has been told by land tax office that
- he is liable for land tax for B between 2011 and 2013
- but if he hadn't had A and had been renting during that time, he would have been exempted.
Is he liable? Is there some way to minimise it (eg choosing to nominate B as PPOR and A as holiday house/IP as in CGT treatment)?
He has been told by land tax office that
- he is liable for land tax for B between 2011 and 2013
- but if he hadn't had A and had been renting during that time, he would have been exempted.
Is he liable? Is there some way to minimise it (eg choosing to nominate B as PPOR and A as holiday house/IP as in CGT treatment)?